I've run into an issue several times on pistols and rifles and I don't know the answer so I thought I'd ask. In shooting pistols, I often shoot with people I consider to be very accurate. When I shoot their guns, I'm always off a little, when they shoot my guns, they are always off a little. I've always considered that because I've got my pistols sighted in, compensating for my poor(er) skill set, and their skill set, at a higher level, is more accurate. That was my rationale for the variance. When I moved into red dots, I saw the same thing. I can shred a bullseye with my red dot equipped pistols, hand it to them and they are a couple inches off. When I shoot their red dots, they shred the bullseye and I'm off a couple inches. I'm taller than all of them and I often wondered if my arm length played a role, being the distance from my eye to the sight was longer, but that was just a question I had.
Then I went to the long range with one of them, who is very accurate at long range. I got my rifle dialed in pretty good at 200 yards and handed it over to him. All shot from a bench. As he shot, the first shot missed the target by 18". Second shot, same place. He adjusted, third shot, missed it by 6", next one by 6" again.
Then I realized that he's left eye dominate, as well as the other person I mainly shoot with. Once he got on target, he crushed it, but there was such a massive difference in where I was hitting steel and his first shots that I knew something was happening.
My question is, does left eye/right eye dominance affect the sighting in of iron sights, red dots, and scopes? Can, or should, that make any difference at all? Part of my brain says of course it makes a difference, it changes the angle between your eye and the sighting device (scope, red dot, iron sights). But then again, I can also see that something sighted in perfectly, from mechanical methods, could be dead right and then any variance from that would all be operator issues.
The way it's looking is when I have my rifle sighted in for me, it seems to be sighted in for me. I thought that once it was sighted in, just about anyone would be close, maybe needing a little change.
Any education on this would be greatly appreciated, because clearly, I don't know the answer
Then I went to the long range with one of them, who is very accurate at long range. I got my rifle dialed in pretty good at 200 yards and handed it over to him. All shot from a bench. As he shot, the first shot missed the target by 18". Second shot, same place. He adjusted, third shot, missed it by 6", next one by 6" again.
Then I realized that he's left eye dominate, as well as the other person I mainly shoot with. Once he got on target, he crushed it, but there was such a massive difference in where I was hitting steel and his first shots that I knew something was happening.
My question is, does left eye/right eye dominance affect the sighting in of iron sights, red dots, and scopes? Can, or should, that make any difference at all? Part of my brain says of course it makes a difference, it changes the angle between your eye and the sighting device (scope, red dot, iron sights). But then again, I can also see that something sighted in perfectly, from mechanical methods, could be dead right and then any variance from that would all be operator issues.
The way it's looking is when I have my rifle sighted in for me, it seems to be sighted in for me. I thought that once it was sighted in, just about anyone would be close, maybe needing a little change.
Any education on this would be greatly appreciated, because clearly, I don't know the answer